It does not say "the Lords day" or "the day of the Lord" in 2Pet 3:8, it simply says 'a day". Peter was simply saying the same thing seen in Psa 90:4 For a thousand years in your sight are like a day that has just gone by, or like a watch in the night. YOU substituted "the Lords day" for "a day", if you want to change Gods word, go write your own bible.Peter could have told us many things that we were not to be ignorant of. But the one thing he claims is for us to understand a comparison. 2Pet 3:8 is a double metaphor. A metaphor is a comparison using the words like or as. The word "AS" is used twice in the verse in the English KJV. Other versions use the word like. Peter lets us know that piece of information for our ease of understanding. The Lord's day is the same length of time as a thousand of our years. A thousand of our years are the same length of time as the the Lord's day.
Second Peter is not the same as Revelations. Peter is not the author of revelations. Why do you say that Peter is here talking about what is in Revelations, specifically Rev 1:10?
In 2 Pet 3:7, the verse before this is talking about "the day of judgement", burning the heavens and the earth with fire, along with the destruction of ungodly men. The specified burning of fire "day of the Lord" says that the heavens and the earth will be destroyed by that fire, will it be destroyed for 1000 years, where is this stated? Will the day of judgement for ungodly men also be 1000 years long? Which is it, 1000 years of judgement or a 1000 year millenial kindom? How are you going to have a millenial kingdom on an earth AND HEAVENS being burned WITH FIRE for 1000 years if 2Pet 3:7 is talking about "the day of the lord" being 1000 years? What on earth does that have to do with Satan being locked up in a comepletly different book by a different author, where it is stated that he will not decieve the nations, which means there are nations, which cannot exist if the earth AND heavens are being burned by fire, along with all those ungodly men, which means no men, and no nations? The next verse, 2Pet 3:9, shows what he is talking about. 2 Pet 3:9 The Lord is not slow in keeping his promise, as some understand slowness. He is patient with you, not wanting anyone to perish, but everyone to come to repentance. He is saying that God is patient, he can wait a thousand years if need be for everyone to come to repentance who he knows will, since he is outside of time, time means nothing to him from his eternal NOW, to him, one day feels like the same passage of time to him as 1000 years since he is outside of time anyway.
Many scholors have carefully studied the original language of the bible for centuries, to see what the original Greek words are saying when they say "the lords day" in Rev 1:10, and it is the same as "the Lords supper" as we now call it, which was on a sunday, because that was the day Christ raised. So it's either beleive centuries of carefull scholorship, or you, sorry, I'll take the scholors.
Once again, why do you insist that Revelation, written in figurative language, suddenly switches to literal 1000 years exactly (without bothering to tell us it switched), rather than using Hebrew firgurative 1000 years which actually means something figurative to Hebrews? Are you simply going to decide yourself what you want to call literal and what figurative, whenever the whim hits you, without any regard to the actual language or culture the actual book was written in? Did God consult you when he wrote it in that language and with those Hebrew figures of speach, so that he would know that that 1000 years should not mean what it meant in Hebrew figurative speech? Did you tell God, "no, I don't want you to write that one small phrase in Hebrew figurative language", and do you think God would obey you if you told him to do it?
Rev 1:10 says ON the Lords day, that means John saw it ON the Lords day. Did John see it over a thousand year period, so, he would finish seeing it about, what, the year 1000 and something? Was John simply describing an exactly 1000 year period, if what is meant by ON is that he was actually at that time, if that time means 1000 years? If John is describing an exactly 1000 year period, where does the time before that come in, isn't that also described? Isn't the time after this 1000 years also described? Yet if you say John was ON that 1000 year period, how could he also see things before and after that time you say he is ON? It makes perfect sence if John is simply saying that on a single normal earthly 24 hour day that he calls "the Lords day", probaly a sunday (occording to Strongs concordance etc), although it might also be a saturday (sabbath, although occording to scholors the word used here was not used that way), he had a vision. It makes NO sense if he saw it on a "day" that lasted 1000 years, in any way.
And yes, it is possible to be YEC and be a beleiver, what I am saying is that it, first, causes you to bring disrepute on the name of Christ, by making Christians look like a bunch of ignorant fools who beleive something so very VERY thoroughly disproven by science that it is laughable that anyone could beleive it. Also, to be able to beleive soething so thoroughly and easily disproven, you have to lie to yourself, you have to consleal from yourself any evidence that will contradict your position, you have to use faulty logic and faulty translations of the bible, you have to carefully stay away from real scholorship of the bible studied for centuries since that would destroy your idea, you must limite yourself only to those "scholors" who tell you what your itching ears want to hear, who are ignorant, unlearned, not dilligent, who only want the bible to mean what they desire, not what God wrote, and who especuially are so into lazy and dishonest scholorship and faulty logic that they are easy prey to Satans ideas. So yes, you may indeed go to heavern (or you may not Mat 7:22, who you think is true Christians may not be) even if you beleive in YEC, however, others around you may go to hell because of your belief, because you have supported Satans idea that Christianity is merely a myth with no connection to the real world. Jesus said to tell others about him, if you do not do this 2 Tim 2:15 Do your best to present yourself to God as one approved, a workman who does not need to be ashamed and who correctly handles the word of truth. If you do not correctly handle the word of truth before you tell others about it, are you really doing what Jesus said to do? Do you care if by your actions and beliefs others around you go to hell? If you don't, is the love of God really in you? 1 Cor 13:2 1 Cor 13:3 frankly, if you beleive YEC, you SHOULD be ashamed! 2 Tim 2:15
It is the same for many other things as well, they also make Christ look foolish, Christianity look like only something ignorant fools believe, or force you to think in dishonest ways to continue to beleive your bizzare and unsupported by the actual words the bible was written in belief, thus leaving you open to further dishonesty by Satan, who you can bet will take advantage of any opeing he can get. I have seen entire churches that have gone so far down the road of these sort of beliefs that what they talk about and do bears little resemblence to Christianity anymore, they resemble cults more than they do Christianity, complete with cult like behavior (sometimes behavior that was specifically forbidden by the apostles, and beleifs specifically said to be false by those same apostles).
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