It doesn't.. Slavery was a integral part of the Bible practiced in both Old AND New testaments..Where does the bible specifically abolish slavery?
Please review this article.. Does God Approve of Slavery According to the Bible?
More here.. http://discussions.godandscience.org/vi ... it=slavery
Being specific from what I've read, the Bible does not directly condemn slavery, but neither does it accept slavery either... Slavery was accepted as a part of life in ancient times but it was a different kind of slavery.. Nothing like the slavery we saw in early America with the blacks. People in ancient times would sell themselves into slavery not only to work, but also for food, debts, shelter, and clothing provided by their master.
"As to the moral status of slavery in ancient times, it must be recognized that it was practiced by every ancient people of which we have any historical record: Egyptians, Sumerians, Babylonians, Assyrians, Phoenicians, Syrians, Moabites, Ammonites, Edolllites, Greeks, Romans, and all the rest. Slavery was as integral a part of ancient culture as commerce, taxation, or temple service."
Hebrew slaves also had many rights unlike how the blacks were treated.. Best described in the article below.
"Several laws in the Law of Moses which applied to servitude are unique, having no counterpart in any other ANE society:
* Servants were protected from injury by their masters, and were set free if they were injured
* Murdering a slave incurred the death penalty
* It was illegal to capture individuals and place them in coercive servitude as property (chattel slavery)
* Any servant who ran away from their master automatically gained their liberty and were free to live wherever they chose; not only was it illegal to return them to their master, it was also forbidden to oppress them in any way"
This article examines which of the various forms of servitude (slavery) common to the Ancient Near East existed under the Law of Moses, and how they were regulated...
* Chattel slavery - A dehumanising form of servitude. (not Biblical)
* Indentured servitude - A mutually contracted servitude into which the individual entered voluntarily.
* Bride sale - Woman's custody status changed so that she belonged the household to which she was sold rather than belonging to her parents.
* Vassalage - Powerful states placed the entire population of weaker states under vassalage, a form of servitude which bound the subordinate state to serve the dominant state.
http://bibleapologetics.wordpress.com/s ... -bible-25/
http://bibleapologetics.wordpress.com/c ... lavery-13/
One could sell himself into slavery, that's true, but kidnapping was punishable by death according to the Bible.
Exodus 21:16 "He who kidnaps a man, whether he sells him or he is found in his possession, shall surely be put to death."
It was a different type of slavery. This type of slavery is close to how the whites treated the blacks.. Exodus 3:7What was it like for the Jewish race in Egypt where they was enslaved, why was the Pharaoh so hostile to what was his workforce?
There are different types of slavery best explained here. http://bibleapologetics.wordpress.com/s ... -bible-25/There are still slaves in the new testament, how did their treatment get improvement?
It depends on what type of slavery it is.. In essence slavery exists today too. As an example, I'm a slave to my work. My boss tells me what to do, and if I wish to stay with the company, I must follow the orders of my boss. If not, I could very well lose my job.What about the Masters of these slaves? B) Some of those were christians, correct? C) Is it okay for a christian to own slaves?
We went over this in this part of the forum. Please review..I remember reading that it is OKAY to beat a slave aslong as he does not die within two days, is it in anyway possible to justify this? If you beat a slave and he dies after 3 days it is still that persons fault isn't it!
http://discussions.godandscience.org/vi ... ave#p64857
The same law applies for both parties.. God does not distinguish between slaves and freemen. See Galatians 3:28, Ephesians 6:8.A master who kills a slave, what happens to that person? Lets assume the Slave was not a Member of the Jewish race, seeing as the Jewish laws seem to apply only to them in the old testement...
"Injuring or killing slaves was punishable - up to death of the offending party.1 Hebrews were commanded not to make their slave work on the Sabbath,2 slander a slave,3 have sex with another man's slave,4 or return an escaped slave.5 A Hebrew was not to enslave his fellow countryman, even if he owed him money, but was to have him work as a hired worker, and he was to be released in the year of jubilee (which occurred every seven years).6 In fact, the slave owner was encouraged to "pamper his slave".7"
Source: http://www.godandscience.org/apologetic ... bible.html
For killing a slave? Yes.. Exodus 21:12 Eye for an eye is best explained here..B) Would the result still be "An eye for an eye", would a Master be Executed for killing his slave?
http://www.godandscience.org/apologetic ... n_eye.html