Why did no New Testament books mention AD70?

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Ged
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Why did no New Testament books mention AD70?

Post by Ged »

My full question is; which of the New Testament books were written after AD70? Assuming there are several, why did none of them mention the 'earth-shattering' events of AD70? The destruction of the temple by Rome fulfilled one of Jesus' own prophecies (Matt. 24:1-3) and its theological significance was central to Christianity. (John 2:19-22) It would have at least been alluded to, surely.
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Re: Why did no New Testament books mention AD70?

Post by PaulSacramento »

The only one that would have been written after 70 would have been Revelation, though some argue that the GOJ was also written after 70AD.
It may simply be that the reason the events of 70AD were not mentioned in the Gospels was because they were written BEFORE 70AD.
The Epistles were all written before 70AD.
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Re: Why did no New Testament books mention AD70?

Post by DBowling »

Ged wrote:My full question is; which of the New Testament books were written after AD70? Assuming there are several, why did none of them mention the 'earth-shattering' events of AD70? The destruction of the temple by Rome fulfilled one of Jesus' own prophecies (Matt. 24:1-3) and its theological significance was central to Christianity. (John 2:19-22) It would have at least been alluded to, surely.
You are pointing to one of the reasons that I personally believe that all of the NT was written before 70 AD.
However, I also believe that there are prophetic sections of the Gospels (the Olivet discourse) as well as parts of Revelation that do reference AD 70 prophetically.
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Re: Why did no New Testament books mention AD70?

Post by JButler »

DBowling wrote:
Ged wrote:My full question is; which of the New Testament books were written after AD70? Assuming there are several, why did none of them mention the 'earth-shattering' events of AD70? The destruction of the temple by Rome fulfilled one of Jesus' own prophecies (Matt. 24:1-3) and its theological significance was central to Christianity. (John 2:19-22) It would have at least been alluded to, surely.
You are pointing to one of the reasons that I personally believe that all of the NT was written before 70 AD.
However, I also believe that there are prophetic sections of the Gospels (the Olivet discourse) as well as parts of Revelation that do reference AD 70 prophetically.
I agree. The history is pretty murky where and when the other apostles were killed but its doubtful there were many left by year 70.
If the truth hurts, maybe it should.
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Re: Why did no New Testament books mention AD70?

Post by B. W. »

Ged wrote:My full question is; which of the New Testament books were written after AD70? Assuming there are several, why did none of them mention the 'earth-shattering' events of AD70? The destruction of the temple by Rome fulfilled one of Jesus' own prophecies (Matt. 24:1-3) and its theological significance was central to Christianity. (John 2:19-22) It would have at least been alluded to, surely.
Yes there are prophecies concerning 70 AD events

Dan 9:24-26. "Seventy weeks are determined For your people and for your holy city, To finish the transgression, To make an end of sins, To make reconciliation for iniquity, To bring in everlasting righteousness, To seal up vision and prophecy, And to anoint the Most Holy. 25 "Know therefore and understand, That from the going forth of the command To restore and build Jerusalem Until Messiah the Prince, There shall be seven weeks and sixty-two weeks; The street shall be built again, and the wall, Even in troublesome times. 26 "And after the sixty-two weeks Messiah shall be cut off, but not for Himself; And the people of the prince who is to come Shall destroy the city and the sanctuary. The end of it shall be with a flood, And till the end of the war desolations are determined...." NKJV

In Daniel 9:24-26, Daniel delivers a prophecy that Jerusalem and the Temple would be destroyed, again. Within these verses,

Daniel's chronology mentions that certain events would occur. The 1st temple had already been destroyed by Babylonians and the regathering back to Israel had not happened yet when Danial received the word. He mentions that, the Jewish people would return and rebuild Jerusalem and the Temple. Next, the Messiah would come and be rejected and cut off, die (in keeping with Isaiah 53 and Psalms 22). Sometime after this that Jerusalem and the rebuilt Temple would be destroyed, again, a second time.


As Proverbs 25:2 states: It is the glory of God to conceal a matter, But the glory of kings is to search out a matter.NKJV

The word becomes a matter to search out because == And till the end of the war desolations are determined == what war? The one between God and Satan? Or does it point out a principle found in Eccl 3:15, ...And what is to be has already been that history has similar repeating patterns to it till the final matter is resolved?

That part is for us to search out. Fact is. Isaiah wrote in Isa 11:11 before Daniel and this event did not start to become fulfilled till May 1948... To recover and draw back the Jewish nation a second time back to its land. Amos 9:1-15 mentions part of the 70 AD event and the events of the scattering into all the nations as well as the second regathering afterwards as well too.

This is in line with Deut 4:27, Deut 28:49,50,52, 64, Deut 30:3...

You have as well - Micah 3:11-12...

So, yes, it was prophesied and Jesus further explained further future events as well.

Hope this helps
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Re: Why did no New Testament books mention AD70?

Post by abelcainsbrother »

B. W. wrote:
Ged wrote:My full question is; which of the New Testament books were written after AD70? Assuming there are several, why did none of them mention the 'earth-shattering' events of AD70? The destruction of the temple by Rome fulfilled one of Jesus' own prophecies (Matt. 24:1-3) and its theological significance was central to Christianity. (John 2:19-22) It would have at least been alluded to, surely.
Yes there are prophecies concerning 70 AD events

Dan 9:24-26. "Seventy weeks are determined For your people and for your holy city, To finish the transgression, To make an end of sins, To make reconciliation for iniquity, To bring in everlasting righteousness, To seal up vision and prophecy, And to anoint the Most Holy. 25 "Know therefore and understand, That from the going forth of the command To restore and build Jerusalem Until Messiah the Prince, There shall be seven weeks and sixty-two weeks; The street shall be built again, and the wall, Even in troublesome times. 26 "And after the sixty-two weeks Messiah shall be cut off, but not for Himself; And the people of the prince who is to come Shall destroy the city and the sanctuary. The end of it shall be with a flood, And till the end of the war desolations are determined...." NKJV

In Daniel 9:24-26, Daniel delivers a prophecy that Jerusalem and the Temple would be destroyed, again. Within these verses,

Daniel's chronology mentions that certain events would occur. The 1st temple had already been destroyed by Babylonians and the regathering back to Israel had not happened yet when Danial received the word. He mentions that, the Jewish people would return and rebuild Jerusalem and the Temple. Next, the Messiah would come and be rejected and cut off, die (in keeping with Isaiah 53 and Psalms 22). Sometime after this that Jerusalem and the rebuilt Temple would be destroyed, again, a second time.


As Proverbs 25:2 states: It is the glory of God to conceal a matter, But the glory of kings is to search out a matter.NKJV

The word becomes a matter to search out because == And till the end of the war desolations are determined == what war? The one between God and Satan? Or does it point out a principle found in Eccl 3:15, ...And what is to be has already been that history has similar repeating patterns to it till the final matter is resolved?

That part is for us to search out. Fact is. Isaiah wrote in Isa 11:11 before Daniel and this event did not start to become fulfilled till May 1948... To recover and draw back the Jewish nation a second time back to its land. Amos 9:1-15 mentions part of the 70 AD event and the events of the scattering into all the nations as well as the second regathering afterwards as well too.

This is in line with Deut 4:27, Deut 28:49,50,52, 64, Deut 30:3...

You have as well - Micah 3:11-12...

So, yes, it was prophesied and Jesus further explained further future events as well.

Hope this helps
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Re: Why did no New Testament books mention AD70?

Post by thatkidakayoungguy »

It's said John the Apostle lived to the end of the 1st century, since Revelation was written about that time.
One can say that Revelation talked about it, as well as the end times.
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Re: Why did no New Testament books mention AD70?

Post by JButler »

I lean to the earlier date. For one thing, late dating is a favorite tactic of Bible/Christianity haters like Bart Ehrmann. The further they can put the written Scriptures in the future, the easier it is to claim the Apostles did not write them but rather they were made up by others separated in time from the original writings of the Apostles.

John's writings give no indication that AD 70 has come. Being banished to a remote rock out in the sea would limit your knowledge of current events. But even if John didn't know about Jerusalem falling when he wrote Revelation, if the letter had been delivered after events of 70 he likely would have been doubted. I can see the people saying "Sure you had a revelation since the events are past, uh huh!"

I believe John's account.
thatkidakayoungguy wrote:It's said John the Apostle lived to the end of the 1st century, since Revelation was written about that time.
One can say that Revelation talked about it, as well as the end times.
If the truth hurts, maybe it should.
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Re: Why did no New Testament books mention AD70?

Post by thatkidakayoungguy »

People say Deuteronomy was written much later, after Moses. What evidence is there for the fact that Moses wrote it?
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Re: Why did no New Testament books mention AD70?

Post by Philip »

TheKid: People say Deuteronomy was written much later, after Moses. What evidence is there for the fact that Moses wrote it?
In Deuteronomy 5:16, Moses says: "16 “‘Honor your father and your mother, as the Lord your God commanded you, that your days may be long, and that it may go well with you in the land that the Lord your God is giving you."

In Mark 7:8-10 Jesus, addressing Pharisees and some scribes, quotes Moses from the Deuteronomy passage above - and identifies it to be from Moses: 8 You leave the commandment of God and hold to the tradition of men. 9 And he said to them, “You have a fine way of rejecting the commandment of God in order to establish your tradition! 10 For Moses said, ‘Honor your father and your mother’; and, ‘Whoever reviles father or mother must surely die.’"

That Deuteronomy passage is also quoted by Paul, in Ephesians 6:2-3 - the first commandment with a promise connected: 2 “Honor your father and mother” (this is the first commandment with a promise), 3 “that it may go well with you and that you may live long in the land.”

Course, those who doubt the NT and Jesus words won't be convinced.
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