Now that Job 38 was addressed on my last post on page three (please read), and shown by Gen 2:7 that the US in Gen 1:26 does not refer to angelic beings having any part in creation compounded with various scriptures that verify that God alone created we can move on to Isa 48:11-16 and verse 16. The person that is speaking in verse 16 is the same ‘I’ mentioned in Isa 48:12-15 and not Isaiah rudely interjecting himself, adding his words to the First and Last’s words as suggested by those monotheists who deny who Jesus really is/was/and always will be..1stjohn0666 wrote:…Jesus is the son of the living God.. Peter affirms my correct answer. Jesus is NOT God. Jesus did as his Father and God commissioned him as Messiah.
…I could list many things that Jesus accomplished, and even Jesus asking for rewards for what he did from his Father. One thing he accomplished is that he became the sacrifice (without spot) .. so that we can have eternal life
…without spot or blemish...Perfect sacrifice…
In the other area "inspired or dictated" The us is clearly the heavenly court (angels). Job 38:7 "when the morning stars sang together and all the sons of God shouted for joy?" Lets keep "inspired or dictated" to that topic. We should keep any debate here, it's kind of fun.
Isaiah would have know that Proverbs 30:6 forbids such adding to God’s ‘I’ statements. Also, the context and grammar flow from verses 11 thru 15 identifies in contextual continuity that the ‘I’ speaking in Isa 48:16 is indeed the one speaking in Isa 48:12. Any other translation that Isaiah decided to suddenly, rudely, break into God’s speaking in verse 16 and call himself ‘I’ is absurd as well as violates all rules of grammatical continuity/construct.
Now we can move on and answer john666 answers that he knows Jesus was not God, yet, able to offer a perfect, spotless sacrifice for sins. How can that be when the bible dictates in Isa 43:11c, Isa 45:21, 22c, Hosea 13:4. Luke 2:11, Acts 4:12, Titus 2:13, 1 John 5:20, 21c, Jude 1:25. Isa 44:6, 7, 8c that only God is savior?
Isaiah 53:1-12 speaks of Arm of the Lord coming and Isa 7:14, Isa 9:6 tell us how. Isa 51:5, Isa 52:10, Isa 59:16, Isa 63:5 also speaks of the arm of the Lord who does what?
If Jesus was only a mere mortal man as John666 says, then how could Jesus really be spotless, without sin and able to forgive sins? Does not Psalms 51:5 and Eph 2:3 speak that no human being is spotless, or able to keep the whole law (Rom 3:20, Gal 2:16c)?
Bible teaches that only God can really forgive all sins. The religious leaders of Jesus days knew this; Mark 2:7, "Why does this man speak that way? He is blaspheming; who can forgive sins but God alone?" NASB
Note also: Isa 43:25; Dan 9:9; Micah 7:18; Luke 5:21, Luke7:49
The only sins a person can forgive are those we deem indebted to us due to some infraction against us in some manner. We can forgive such infractions and are required too.
However, we cannot forgive the entire world of its infractions and rebellion as Jesus did who is the spotless Lamb of God who takes away the sins of the world…John 1:29, Isa 53:11, Hosea 14:2, 1 Pet 1:19, Gal 1:4, 1 Co 15:3, Daniel 9:24
Only God can do that and only He can save. The Messiah Jesus was both 100 percent man and 100 percent God as Isa 9:6, Isa 43:11c, Isa 53:1-12, John 1:14 reveals could forgive, atone for the sins of the entire world and be spotless without sin.
Again this demonstrates the inspired dictation from the Lord God as no man could have ever dreamt this up.
...Human beings are glory hounds, seeking the self glory of man alone preferring to save themselves through self glorifying efforts and deal making… Think about it
P.S. for more information please see the Threadline I made entitled: Old Testament Concept of God on this site at:
http://discussions.godandscience.org/vi ... 22&t=33317