Do YECs accept "ordinary days"?

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Re: Do YECs accept "ordinary days"?

Post by EssentialSacrifice »

http://www.gotquestions.org/heaven-like.html
John witnessed that heaven (the new earth) possesses the “glory of God” , the very presence of God. Because heaven has no night and the Lord Himself is the light, the sun and moon are no longer needed
Don't have a dog in this fight but in another thread B.W. showed his verse and i think it fits in here nicely... Revelation 21:23

So, if the light of God , that is God, illuminates the the world by His very presence.... if there can be light for the world with no sun or moon at it's conclusion, couldn't it also have started out the same way? and then, 4 days later... :sunny: y:-?
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Re: Do YECs accept "ordinary days"?

Post by RickD »

EssentialSacrifice wrote:
John witnessed that heaven (the new earth) possesses the “glory of God” , the very presence of God. Because heaven has no night and the Lord Himself is the light, the sun and moon are no longer needed

Don't have a dog in this fight but in another thread B.W. showed his verse and i think it fits in here nicely... Revelation 21:23

So, if the light of God , that is God, illuminates the the world by His very presence.... if there can be light for the world with no sun or moon at it's conclusion, couldn't it also have started out the same way? and then, 4 days later... y:-?
Sure ES,

Maybe it could have started that way, and then 4 days later was the sun. But that's not what Jac said. He said the sun wasn't the source of light.

Not to mention, that Jac wasn't saying that God's presence was the light. He just said that God was the source of the light.
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Re: Do YECs accept "ordinary days"?

Post by abelcainsbrother »

All good points to consider but it seems to me that if we go by the HGM then we must ignore Genesis 1:1 because when it says " In the beginning God created the heavens and earth,it means to me that heavens includes everything in our universe the planets,Stars,sun,moon,etc but for some reason this is ignored.This would also mean when it was created in the bbeginninng the earth was spinning in its orbit too.

Going by the HGM seems to force a person to be a young earth creationist and ignore other parts of the bible,it makes Genesis 1 trump everything other parts of the bible say,like Job 38:4-7,etc.
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Re: Do YECs accept "ordinary days"?

Post by RickD »

abelcainsbrother wrote:All good points to consider but it seems to me that if we go by the HGM then we must ignore Genesis 1:1 because when it says " In the beginning God created the heavens and earth,it means to me that heavens includes everything in our universe the planets,Stars,sun,moon,etc but for some reason this is ignored.This would also mean when it was created in the bbeginninng the earth was spinning in its orbit too.

Going by the HGM seems to force a person to be a young earth creationist and ignore other parts of the bible,it makes Genesis 1 trump everything other parts of the bible say,like Job 38:4-7,etc.
Umm...no. :scratch:
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Re: Do YECs accept "ordinary days"?

Post by abelcainsbrother »

RickD wrote:
abelcainsbrother wrote:All good points to consider but it seems to me that if we go by the HGM then we must ignore Genesis 1:1 because when it says " In the beginning God created the heavens and earth,it means to me that heavens includes everything in our universe the planets,Stars,sun,moon,etc but for some reason this is ignored.This would also mean when it was created in the bbeginninng the earth was spinning in its orbit too.

Going by the HGM seems to force a person to be a young earth creationist and ignore other parts of the bible,it makes Genesis 1 trump everything other parts of the bible say,like Job 38:4-7,etc.
Umm...no. :scratch:
Maybe I've misunderstood the HGM then.I will review a little and see if I've misunderstood itbut it seems like it right now and from what I know most scholars are YEC.I still try to consider YEC but I can't for now because of what I now know.I've not seen or heard good enough reasons biblically to accept it again but I still accept all who are Christian even if I disagree with them.1st Corinthians 13:12
Hebrews 12:2-3 Looking unto Jesus the author and finisher of our faith;who for the joy that was set before him endured the cross,despising the shame,and is set down at the right hand of the throne of God.

2nd Corinthians 4:4 In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not,lest the light of this glorious gospel of Christ,who is the image of God,should shine unto them.
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Re: Do YECs accept "ordinary days"?

Post by EssentialSacrifice »

that's not what Jac said. He said the sun wasn't the source of light.
without going back, the sun wasn't the source of light if it was the light of God, pre sun's creation.
Jac wasn't saying that God's presence was the light. He just said that God was the source of the light.
that is one thin slice of arguement. I see the difference but.... could He be the source of light without being present? y:O2

The answer of course is yes, he can do anything, but that's another can of worms... y/:]
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Re: Do YECs accept "ordinary days"?

Post by RickD »

RickD wrote:
that's not what Jac said. He said the sun wasn't the source of light.

ES wrote:
without going back, the sun wasn't the source of light if it was the light of God, pre sun's creation.
Jac said that even after the sun was created, it wasn't the source of light.
RickD wrote:
Jac wasn't saying that God's presence was the light. He just said that God was the source of the light.

ES wrote:

that is one thin slice of arguement. I see the difference but.... could He be the source of light without being present? y:O2

The answer of course is yes, he can do anything, but that's another can of worms... y/:]
The reason I point out the difference, was because of Jac's argument regarding the sun not being the source of the light, so Israel wouldn't worship the sun. If it's not God's presence, or God literally being the light, then you have something other than God being the light. And there goes the argument about God not wanting Israel to worship something other than Himself.
Couldn't God just have made it known to Moses, that even if the sun was the source of the light, God created the sun, so ultimately, He is still the provider of the light?

Oh wait, there is a way that God could've made it known. In fact, He did make it known in Genesis 1, when it says that God created the light.
Genesis 1:3
3 Then God said, “Let there be light”; and there was light.

The whole "The sun wasn't the source of light, God was the source" argument, just seems like a complicated way to come up with something, other than just accepting the simple reading in Genesis 1, that the sun existed on or before creation day 1.
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Re: Do YECs accept "ordinary days"?

Post by EssentialSacrifice »

The reason I point out the difference, was because of Jac's argument regarding the sun not being the source of the light, so Israel wouldn't worship the sun. If it's not God's presence, or God literally being the light, then you have something other than God being the light. And there goes the argument about God not wanting Israel to worship something other than Himself.
yeah, sorry, been away .... I came in way too late ... :oops: carry on...
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Re: Do YECs accept "ordinary days"?

Post by Jac3510 »

Rick, I don't understand why you are having such a hard time with what I'm saying. The point is not, "We worship the source of light; God is the source of light; therefore, we worship God." That is NOT my point. You're inventing an argument I didn't make. If you want to syllogize it, my argument is more like, "Some people worship the sun because it is the source of light. But the sun is not the source of light. Therefore, those people are wrong in worshiping the sun." Whether or not we ought to worship "the source of light" is another matter entirely. What Moses implicitly recognizes, though, is the difference in the temporal source of light and the ultimate source of light. We worship God because He created the light.

You're just not appreciating the apologetic nature of Genesis 1. But, regardless, the point I'm trying to drive home is very simple. K's initial assertion that a day is defined by the rising and setting of the sun is simply not true. A day is defined by the morning/evening cycle. The back up assertion that the morning/evening cycle is defined by the rising and setting of the sun is also not true. The morning/evening cycle is defined by the presence and absence of the light, which God separated from the darkness on day 1. The sun and the rotation of the earth have nothing to do with it, and the text explicitly tells us the purpose of the sun: not to define morning and evening but to govern the day and to serve as a sign of the day. Therefore, K's original argument is mistaken in claiming YECs don't believe in ordinary days.

I mean, really, I shouldn't have to explain all that technical stuff. The shear claim that YECs don't believe in ordinary days is just too clever by a half. It's just trying too hard. I mean, seriously. It's an absurd claim. It's useful, I suppose, in helping us see the importance of our assumptions and how they can keep us from missing theological perspectives in a text. But beyond that? I mean, really . . . YECs don't believe in ordinary days?

Ok. Right. I'm just asking you all to stop making that argument. Sure, you can make it if you like, just like ACB can talk about the GT all he wants. But do you want to keep pushing something that's just ridiculous? It's just . . . silly.
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Re: Do YECs accept "ordinary days"?

Post by RickD »

Jac wrote:
Rick, I don't understand why you are having such a hard time with what I'm saying. The point is not, "We worship the source of light; God is the source of light; therefore, we worship God." That is NOT my point. You're inventing an argument I didn't make. If you want to syllogize it, my argument is more like, "Some people worship the sun because it is the source of light. But the sun is not the source of light. Therefore, those people are wrong in worshiping the sun." Whether or not we ought to worship "the source of light" is another matter entirely. What Moses implicitly recognizes, though, is the difference in the temporal source of light and the ultimate source of light. We worship God because He created the light.

Jac, thanks for putting your argument in a syllogism. That way I can show you that I do understand the argument. I just disagree with the second premise.

1. Some people worship the sun because it is the source of light.

2. But the sun is not the source of light.

3. Therefore, those people are wrong in worshiping the sun.

I believe the sun IS the source of light, as it was created on or before the first creation day.
Jac wrote:
You're just not appreciating the apologetic nature of Genesis 1. But, regardless, the point I'm trying to drive home is very simple. K's initial assertion that a day is defined by the rising and setting of the sun is simply not true. A day is defined by the morning/evening cycle. The back up assertion that the morning/evening cycle is defined by the rising and setting of the sun is also not true. The morning/evening cycle is defined by the presence and absence of the light, which God separated from the darkness on day 1. The sun and the rotation of the earth have nothing to do with it, and the text explicitly tells us the purpose of the sun: not to define morning and evening but to govern the day and to serve as a sign of the day. Therefore, K's original argument is mistaken in claiming YECs don't believe in ordinary days.
You are saying that the sun doesn't define the day. And, that the purpose of the sun is to govern the day, and serve as a sign of the day.
And to my point, you are saying that the evening/morning cycle is SEPARATED FROM DARKNESS on day 1, AND THE SUN HAS NOTHING TO DO WITH THAT SEPARATION. And, I'd like to try to show from scripture, why you are wrong.

Here's Genesis 1:1-6
1 In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth. 2 The earth was [a]formless and void, and darkness was over the surface of the deep, and the Spirit of God was [c]moving over the [d]surface of the waters. 3 Then God said, “Let there be light”; and there was light. 4 God saw that the light was good; and God separated the light from the darkness. 5 God called the light day, and the darkness He called night. And there was evening and there was morning, one day.

You are saying that the sun didn't exist. And the sun had nothing to do with the separating of light from darkness, because that wasn't the purpose of the sun. You said the purpose of the sun was to govern the day, and to mark the day.

But in Genesis 1:14 and verse 18, It says that the sun, which is included in "lights in the expanse of the heavens" DOES SEPARATE THE DAY FROM THE NIGHT. As well as to serve as signs for seasons, days, and years.
14 Then God said, “Let there be lights in the [t]expanse of the heavens to separate the day from the night, and let them be for signs and for seasons and for days and years; 15 and let them be for lights in the [v]expanse of the heavens to give light on the earth”; and it was so. 16 God made the two [w]great lights, the greater [x]light [y]to govern the day, and the lesser [z]light [aa]to govern the night; He made the stars also. 17 God placed them in the [ab]expanse of the heavens to give light on the earth, 18 and [ac]to govern the day and the night, and to separate the light from the darkness; and God saw that it was good. 19 There was evening and there was morning, a fourth day.

What I don't understand, is why you seem to be going out of your way, making it more complicated, to show that the sun didn't exist until day 4. When it's much simpler, and make more sense scripturally, that the sun did exist on day 1, and the sun did separate the light from the darkness. And the sun is what God made to show us what an ordinary day is.

I mean, really, I shouldn't have to explain all that technical stuff. The shear claim that YECs don't believe in ordinary days is just too clever by a half. It's just trying too hard. I mean, seriously. It's an absurd claim. It's useful, I suppose, in helping us see the importance of our assumptions and how they can keep us from missing theological perspectives in a text. But beyond that? I mean, really . . . YECs don't believe in ordinary days?


Again, you are overthinking this. An ordinary day is a day with morning and evening, sunrise and sunset. It's not complicated. The text says the sun existed on day 1, and was made visible on the 4th day.

Ok. Right. I'm just asking you all to stop making that argument. Sure, you can make it if you like, just like ACB can talk about the GT all he wants. But do you want to keep pushing something that's just ridiculous? It's just . . . silly.


And, I hope you see that it sounds silly when you say the sun didn't exist until day 4. It's silly scripturally, scientifically, and logically.
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Re: Do YECs accept "ordinary days"?

Post by Jac3510 »

I had to put it in a syllogism for you to see that you didn't agree with the second premise?

Rick, that's what I've been saying in every single post, repeatedly, with emphasis, throughout this discussion!

In any case, I appreciate your attempt to offer a scriptural rebuttal, since that's the only thing that will do. I simply don't find your rebuttal compelling. You point out that on day four the sun is "to separate the day from the night." I've not contested that at all, now have I? Your problem is that two verses later, the text says, "God made [the sun]." The simple fact is that the sun comes after the creation of light. That is completely impossible to get away from. That's been my point the entire time.

So what new thing came about on the fourth day? It wasn't light. The light was already there (and therefore, morning and evening and thus ordinary days were already there). It was the heavenly bodies to govern, to mark the days and the night. Again, I've no debate that the sun governs the day, that it separates it from the night. That's never been the question. But it doesn't follow that where there is no sun that there is no light, that there is no morning/evening. All you are doing is the same thing you are doing with the meaning of yom. You are just reading science back into the text. It's eisogesis, Rick. It's bad hermeneutics. And when used against YEC, it's a poor attempt at a cheap shot.

Frankly, I'm surprised at you and K for being willing to defend this foolishness. It makes you look desperate, as if you have to find SOME SORT of weakness in YEC. Y'all, that isn't hard to do. There are plenty of weaknesses in YEC. That's why this board and the main site exists! And some of the pseudoscientific arguments that AiG and others make are, frankly, embarrassing . . . double and triple face palm kind of stuff. I don't want to see you guys sink to that level.

Let me try to be clearer still.

You can argue--on sound HGM grounds!!!!--that the sun came into existence on day 1. I've alluded to that already in this thread. The biggest problem there is with the force of asah in describing what amounts to the appearance of the sun on day 4. But I think, while that is a problem, it is not unsolvable. You can have a (more) scientific comfort with the idea of evening and morning being rooted in the rotation of the earth on its axis and the revolution of the earth around the sun. But you must recognize, even from that perspective, that the rotation of the earth on its axis is not relevant to the text. All that is, is an attempt to explain phenomenon Moses was unaware of. Such a view is pretty unrelated to exegesis. It's completely and totally a matter of defensive apologetics.

AGAIN, I don't think that view is impossible or even improbable. But what you cannot do is what is being attempted in this thread. You can't say that if the sun didn't exist on day 1, then ordinary days didn't exist. And you can't say that because the text does not define an ordinary day as a sunrise and sunset.

I'm going to say this in different paragraphs so that it is as clear as I can make it.

THE TEXT DOES NOT DEFINE AN ORDINARY DAY AS A SUNRISE AND SUNSET

The text DOES define an ordinary day as an evening/morning cycle.

The text defines an evening/morning cycle as the absence and then presence of light, of daytime to nighttime to daytime.

The text EXPLICITLY separates and distinguishes the evening/morning cycle from the sun.
  • (That which does not exist cannot produce that which does exist;
    Evening/morning is depicted as existing before the sun, which is to say, evening/morning are depicted as having existed at one point in which the sun did not)
    Therefore, the evening/morning cycle is not produced by the sun;
    Side note: so produces the evening/morning cycle? Answer: the light, created on day 1)
THEREFORE, arguments against the definition of an ordinary day based on the necessary link between the evening/morning cycle and the sun are eisogetical arguments. They come from science. NOT FROM SCRIPTURE.

So, yes, YEC believes in ordinary days. You can disagree with YEC on how it gets there. And that's fine. That's just another disagreement between YEC and OEC. I don't care how many of those differences pile up. But you don't get to say that YEC doesn't believe in ordinary days because you read science back into the text. That is starting with an OEC assumption and reading YEC in light of that. And that, frankly, is dishonest. You're better than that.
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Re: Do YECs accept "ordinary days"?

Post by Philip »

:swoon: Er, whaa, um y:-/, uh, okay, I'm awake again. But remind me to not take a Benedryl before reading any lengthy posts about the YEC-OEC stufffffffffffffff..............zzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzz. :sleep: I do know this: I can sleep with or without the sun - and quite soundly, I might add. :lol:
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Re: Do YECs accept "ordinary days"?

Post by Jac3510 »

Mmmmmmmmmm . . . Benedryl. Best sleep you'll ever get. :)
Proinsias wrote:I don't think you are hearing me. Preference for ice cream is a moral issue
And that, brothers and sisters, is the kind of foolishness you get people who insist on denying biblical theism. A good illustration of any as the length people will go to avoid acknowledging basic truths.
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Re: Do YECs accept "ordinary days"?

Post by abelcainsbrother »

Jac brought up asah of day 4 which sticks out to me.I see bara and asah when I read Genesis.But I'm wondering how Jac interprets Genesis 2:4 with both bara and asah in it.What is the difference?
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Re: Do YECs accept "ordinary days"?

Post by RickD »

Jac wrote:
I had to put it in a syllogism for you to see that you didn't agree with the second premise?
No Jac. I said:
Jac, thanks for putting your argument in a syllogism. That way I can show you that I do understand the argument. I just disagree with the second premise.
Your putting it is a syllogism makes it easier for me to show you where I disagree. That's all. I'm not a seasoned debater like you are. It takes me a little longer to catch on. And I appreciate you bearing with me. I know how frustrating it can be when it seems someone doesn't understand what we're saying.
Jac wrote:
In any case, I appreciate your attempt to offer a scriptural rebuttal, since that's the only thing that will do. I simply don't find your rebuttal compelling. You point out that on day four the sun is "to separate the day from the night." I've not contested that at all, now have I?
You haven't contested it specifically on day 4. But you said:
The morning/evening cycle is defined by the presence and absence of the light, which God separated from the darkness on day 1. The sun and the rotation of the earth have nothing to do with it, and the text explicitly tells us the purpose of the sun: not to define morning and evening but to govern the day and to serve as a sign of the day.
So, I showed you from scripture, that the text specifically refutes what you said about the sun not having anything to do with separating light from darkness. You said the text was explicit in telling us the purpose of the sun, which was not to define morning and evening.
Jac wrote:
Your problem is that two verses later, the text says, "God made [the sun].
Or it could be translated as, "God had made the sun." Which means He simply made the sun sometime in the past.
Jac wrote:
The simple fact is that the sun comes after the creation of light. That is completely impossible to get away from. That's been my point the entire time.
And I disagree. It's not a simple fact. It's your interpretation. The sun existed on the first day. The sun is the source of light.
Jac wrote:
So what new thing came about on the fourth day? It wasn't light. The light was already there (and therefore, morning and evening and thus ordinary days were already there). It was the heavenly bodies to govern, to mark the days and the night.
The new thing that came about on the 4th day, was the visibility of the light, from the perspective of the earth's surface. The sun was already there, and so were the stars. They just became visible, which then allowed them to be able to be markers of seasons, days, and years.
Jac wrote:
Again, I've no debate that the sun governs the day, that it separates it from the night. That's never been the question.
Then I completely misread you when you said:
The morning/evening cycle is defined by the presence and absence of the light, which God separated from the darkness on day 1. The sun and the rotation of the earth have nothing to do with it,
You said the sun has nothing to do with God separating light from darkness. And Genesis 1:17-18 seems to show from the text, that you are wrong:
17 God placed them in the [ab]expanse of the heavens to give light on the earth, 18 and [ac]to govern the day and the night, and to separate the light from the darkness; and God saw that it was good.


Jac wrote:
But it doesn't follow that where there is no sun that there is no light, that there is no morning/evening. All you are doing is the same thing you are doing with the meaning of yom. You are just reading science back into the text. It's eisogesis, Rick. It's bad hermeneutics. And when used against YEC, it's a poor attempt at a cheap shot.
You are the one practicing eisogesis, by saying that there was light other than the sun which existed on day 1. The text does not say that the light was something other than the sun. You just assume it was, because you wrongly believe the sun didn't exist until the 4th day.
Jac wrote:
Frankly, I'm surprised at you and K for being willing to defend this foolishness. It makes you look desperate, as if you have to find SOME SORT of weakness in YEC. Y'all, that isn't hard to do. There are plenty of weaknesses in YEC. That's why this board and the main site exists! And some of the pseudoscientific arguments that AiG and others make are, frankly, embarrassing . . . double and triple face palm kind of stuff. I don't want to see you guys sink to that level.
I guess that's a backhanded complement disguised as an insult? :scratch:
You can argue--on sound HGM grounds!!!!--that the sun came into existence on day 1. I've alluded to that already in this thread. The biggest problem there is with the force of asah in describing what amounts to the appearance of the sun on day 4. But I think, while that is a problem, it is not unsolvable. You can have a (more) scientific comfort with the idea of evening and morning being rooted in the rotation of the earth on its axis and the revolution of the earth around the sun. But you must recognize, even from that perspective, that the rotation of the earth on its axis is not relevant to the text. All that is, is an attempt to explain phenomenon Moses was unaware of. Such a view is pretty unrelated to exegesis. It's completely and totally a matter of defensive apologetics.
I'm not saying the earth rotating on its axis is relevant. I thought I made that clear in my wonderful Mr. YEC/Mr. OEC dialogue.
Jac wrote:
AGAIN, I don't think that view is impossible or even improbable. But what you cannot do is what is being attempted in this thread. You can't say that if the sun didn't exist on day 1, then ordinary days didn't exist. And you can't say that because the text does not define an ordinary day as a sunrise and sunset.
Yes I can. And I can say that ordinary days didn't exist if there was no sun, for the same reason we can't use the earth spinning on its axis as an argument. Because we are going with what Moses would've understood, right? An ordinary day to Moses, would be what he saw every day. The sun rises, and the sun sets. That's what he sees. He doesn't see the earth rotating on its axis. and the only way he would know that would be if it came as a direct revelation from God. And the text doesn't mention that. Just like Moses would have no idea about some other light that existed besides light from the sun. So, Moses would have no idea about the kind of light that you say was created on day 1.
Jac wrote:
THE TEXT DOES NOT DEFINE AN ORDINARY DAY AS A SUNRISE AND SUNSET

The text DOES define an ordinary day as an evening/morning cycle.

The text defines an evening/morning cycle as the absence and then presence of light, of daytime to nighttime to daytime.
Yes Jac. I know that. But when we look to the hebrew words that are translated as evening and morning, `ereb and boqer respectively, we see that those words mean sunset and sunrise. The word translated as evening, is `ereb. Which means sunset.

And the word translated as morning, is boqer, which means sunrise.
Jac wrote:
The text EXPLICITLY separates and distinguishes the evening/morning cycle from the sun.
No it doesn't, as I've shown you from the meanings of ereb and boqer.
Jac wrote:
(That which does not exist cannot produce that which does exist;
Evening/morning is depicted as existing before the sun, which is to say, evening/morning are depicted as having existed at one point in which the sun did not)
Therefore, the evening/morning cycle is not produced by the sun;
Side note: so produces the evening/morning cycle? Answer: the light, created on day 1)

THEREFORE, arguments against the definition of an ordinary day based on the necessary link between the evening/morning cycle and the sun are eisogetical arguments. They come from science. NOT FROM SCRIPTURE.
No. Just because you disagree with my interpretation, that doesn't make it eisogesis. The sun existed on day one. You yourself said an HGM argument can be made for the sun existing on day one. If that HGM argument can be made, then the argument is from scripture. It's not eisogesis.
Jac wrote:
So, yes, YEC believes in ordinary days.
Not as Moses would've had knowledge of, without direct revelation from God, which isn't shown in the text.
Jac wrote:
You can disagree with YEC on how it gets there. And that's fine. That's just another disagreement between YEC and OEC. I don't care how many of those differences pile up. But you don't get to say that YEC doesn't believe in ordinary days because you read science back into the text. That is starting with an OEC assumption and reading YEC in light of that. And that, frankly, is dishonest. You're better than that.
Jac, I hope you will retract your claim of dishonesty on my part. As you can see, I explained how Moses would not be able to know an ordinary day if the sun didn't exist. And, I did not use science.
John 5:24
24 “Truly, truly, I say to you, he who hears My word, and believes Him who sent Me, has eternal life, and does not come into judgment, but has passed out of death into life.


“A nation of sheep will beget a government of wolves.”
-Edward R Murrow




St. Richard the Sarcastic--The Patron Saint of Irony
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