Was Adam the first man?

Discussion about scientific issues as they relate to God and Christianity including archaeology, origins of life, the universe, intelligent design, evolution, etc.
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Turgonian
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Was Adam the first man?

Post by Turgonian »

I'm having a discussion on TheologyWeb about whether Adam was the first man, as the Bible clearly teaches. I asked the questions:

1) Is Adam the common ancestor of all men living today?
2) How did sin enter the world?

My debate opponent replied:
srvfan wrote:For #1, based on anthropological evidence, the answer is no. There is no trace of Mesopotamian influence on tribes such as Maoris, Igorots, Ainus, Native Americans, etc. But I trust in the Bible that Adam's descendants are Israel and of course, the Lord Jesus Christ.

It is true it is difficult to answer #2 if Adam is beyond reasonable doubt proven to be not the first biological human being. In the context of the reading, I understand Paul is a Jew and naturally, he'd point Adam as the first man because he's the primary ancestor of the Jews. This is not to say Paul is lying, but he's not an omniscient person and that was what tradition had revealed to him.

The possibilities I have in mind are the following:

A. Adam is an example, rather than the sole reason of sin entering the world. Perhaps those who had lived before (and away from) Adam also had their own experience of "The Fall" in a different way. I remembered some Native American stories about their ancestors who abused the gifts of the Great Spirit, and later those people sought for His forgiveness. Sure, God delivered judgment on them but to the best of my knowledge, they're not as violent and harsh compared to the punishment God had delivered to the Canaanites, and even to his own chosen people.

B. Adam was privileged to receive special revelation from God compared to other tribes and cultures. But he was accountable for his wrongdoing because he knew what would displease God and he chose to do so. Other tribes are not accountable to God, or at least as accountable as Adam because they do not possess the revelation Adam was privileged to have. Sin then, is any act displeasing to God and you have full knowledge of it.

I am still gathering more data on this, so the possibilities I've written above are simply speculations on how evil had planted deep on the heart of mankind.
What are your thoughts on this?
The Bible says they were "willingly ignorant". In the Greek, this means "be dumb on purpose". (Kent Hovind)
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Post by Fortigurn »

My thoughts are that the Bible indicates clearly that Cain married outside the covenant community, into a family of people who were unrelated to him.

Christian theologians have for centuries been utterly confounded by the question of 'Where did Cain get his wife?', because they were unable to reconcile what the Bible so plainly stated, with their interpretation of Genesis.
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Turgonian
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Post by Turgonian »

Are there people living today who are no descendants of Adam?

If so, whatever happened to Original Sin?
The Bible says they were "willingly ignorant". In the Greek, this means "be dumb on purpose". (Kent Hovind)
Fortigurn
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Post by Fortigurn »

Turgonian wrote:Are there people living today who are no descendants of Adam?
Good question. I think it entirely possible.
If so, whatever happened to Original Sin?
I don't believe in 'Original Sin', so that's not a problem for me.
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Turgonian
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Post by Turgonian »

Then how did sin come into the world?
And how do you interpret Genesis 3? And Romans 5?
The Bible says they were "willingly ignorant". In the Greek, this means "be dumb on purpose". (Kent Hovind)
Fortigurn
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Post by Fortigurn »

Turgonian wrote:Then how did sin come into the world?
Through Adam and Eve. There is no sin without law, and they were the only people who had law.
And how do you interpret Genesis 3? And Romans 5?
In the usual way.
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