End times prophecy checklist...

[RickD]

Who's not a Christian here?

Both you and IceLobster have checked "no" in your profiles.

Will forever see him as IceLobster now.


And now I'm hungry.

It cracked me up when you called him RockLobster, Rick - but feel free not to call me any funny versions of my name - I think I've heard them all Actually, most of them could apply to you as well

Ok St. Nicki
Tricki Nicki
Nicki Nouse

Nicki, Your name is a tough one to tease you with. IceMobster has so many possibilities.

[IceMobster]

Who's not a Christian here?

Both you and IceLobster have checked "no" in your profiles.

Will forever see him as IceLobster now.


And now I'm hungry.

It cracked me up when you called him RockLobster, Rick - but feel free not to call me any funny versions of my name - I think I've heard them all Actually, most of them could apply to you as well

Ok St. Nicki
Tricki Nicki
Nicki Nouse

Nicki, Your name is a tough one to tease you with. IceMobster has so many possibilities.

[thesign]

This explains the idea of birth pangs from a Jewish perspective.

Jacob Prasch has, at least at the time of this video, a misunderstanding (ca. 48:50) regarding the Blessed Virgin Mary, Who is the Immaculate Conception, and being the Immaculate Conception, She is free from sin.

This shouldn't be too hard to understand as She bore God the Son within Her womb.

[SoCalExile]

This explains the idea of birth pangs from a Jewish perspective.

Jacob Prasch has, at least at the time of this video, a misunderstanding (ca. 48:50) regarding the Blessed Virgin Mary, Who is the Immaculate Conception, and being the Immaculate Conception, She is free from sin.

This shouldn't be too hard to understand as She bore God the Son within Her womb.

There is no biblical support for Mary being sinless. In fact, the implication of Luke 1:47 is the opposite.

[thesign]

This explains the idea of birth pangs from a Jewish perspective.

Jacob Prasch has, at least at the time of this video, a misunderstanding (ca. 48:50) regarding the Blessed Virgin Mary, Who is the Immaculate Conception, and being the Immaculate Conception, She is free from sin.

This shouldn't be too hard to understand as She bore God the Son within Her womb.

There is no biblical support for Mary being sinless. In fact, the implication of Luke 1:47 is the opposite.

No it isn't.

Matthew 11:6 : " And he is blessed, that shall not be caused to stumble in me. [And he is blessed, that shall not be offended in me.]" - Wycliffe Holy Bible

[B. W.]

This explains the idea of birth pangs from a Jewish perspective.

Jacob Prasch has, at least at the time of this video, a misunderstanding (ca. 48:50) regarding the Blessed Virgin Mary, Who is the Immaculate Conception, and being the Immaculate Conception, She is free from sin.

This shouldn't be too hard to understand as She bore God the Son within Her womb.

This must be a sign - thesign is back!

All good natured jovial kidding aside...

For what yo say to be actually true creates a logical contradiction with the bible in Romans 3:23, "For all have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God..." NKJV thus making void the scriptures.

Mary was stepped in sin as the rest of humanity is. She had a sin nature. She was chosen by God's grace (Luke 1:30) alone to bring forth Messiah into the world. In the gospel accounts and NT, she is never worshiped as is Astarte i.e. Ishtar who waits to bear Nabo i.e. Tamuez in order to bring back who these two represent who are Azazel i.e Negal i.e. Hades from his prison (Matthew 25:41) in hell. Also known to as the anti-Christ figure likened to Nimrod to lead humanity into peace, security, prosperity, secret knowledge, etc... thru murder and intrigue and slavery.

Azazel, according to Jewish traditions was Satan's second in command who as Rev 12:4 may reveal was cast to earth before Satan arrived per Rev 12:9. He correlates to ancient Ba'al ie Mesopotamian deities who taught human beings to work metals and a host of other things such as slavery (hunting men for sport) etc and etc.

For this, Azazel was cast into hell. The other fallen angels, according to traditions and ancient religions seek to resurrect this entity from the bowels of hell to use humanity as sport to conquer God Almighty in one last battle on earth along with Satan. Think of Satan as an Covert Narcissist and Azazel as the Overt Narcissist henchman of the Devil.

In Lev 16:8, 10, 26 mentions the word scapegoat. This word is actually spelled as Azazel in Hebrew- the scapegoat made to bear sins and sent into the wilderness. This is symbolic of those who will follow Azazel into he pit of hell who do not accept the Lord's sacrifice upon the cross.

The story line appears to be reflection from something that happened in our far past on the level of a war in heaven and the devil and his minions casting out of heaven. The religious orders that the demonic set up - mock God and attempt to make him act against His own nature and character by attempting stain the true lamb of God slain before the foundation of the world to reconcile human beings back to God by the cross.

The Immaculate Conception, meaning Mary is free from sin, is nothing more and nothing less than the old storyline of Ishtar and Tammuz - or Astarte and Nebo disguised in christianese.

Sorry, that is the blatant truth. If it offends you or others so be it. I do not offend on purpose but out of love in order to to restore people back to Jesus Christ who do not know the depths of Satan.

I suggest folks read, Rev 2:18,19,20,21,22,23,24,25

These verses speaks of this blending of pagan influence into the church for purposes of world control of leaders. Isthar is a mother figure who influences rulers how to govern. We see this in degrees in the most of RC and some of the EO churches. They seek to be part of the world system of control, and do blend Jezebel's Ba'al worship into the church.

Suggest you read Rev 2:18-25 soon
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[SoCalExile]

This explains the idea of birth pangs from a Jewish perspective.

Jacob Prasch has, at least at the time of this video, a misunderstanding (ca. 48:50) regarding the Blessed Virgin Mary, Who is the Immaculate Conception, and being the Immaculate Conception, She is free from sin.

This shouldn't be too hard to understand as She bore God the Son within Her womb.

There is no biblical support for Mary being sinless. In fact, the implication of Luke 1:47 is the opposite.

No it isn't.

Matthew 11:6 : " And he is blessed, that shall not be caused to stumble in me. [And he is blessed, that shall not be offended in me.]" - Wycliffe Holy Bible

I don't think that verse is referring to Who you think it does.

[SoCalExile]

I suggest folks read, Rev 2:18,19,20,21,22,23,24,25

These verses speaks of this blending of pagan influence into the church for purposes of world control of leaders. Isthar is a mother figure who influences rulers how to govern. We see this in degrees in the most of RC and some of the EO churches. They seek to be part of the world system of control, and do blend Jezebel's Ba'al worship into the church.

Suggest you read Rev 2:18-25 soon
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-
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For more prophecies on the blending of paganism in Revelation 11:4, regarding the Two Witnesses, in the context of Zechariah 4:3, who are (in the context of Zechariah 3 and 4), Joshua and Zerubbabel, who rebuilt the temple and rejected the offer of the Samaritans in Ezra 4. The Samaritans practiced a mixture of Assyrian paganism and Judaism.

The implication here is that the Two Witnesses of Revelation are hated because they stand against the Anti-Christ and False Prophet in their goal to use the rebuilt Temple to glorify themselves and the Beast.

[abelcainsbrother]

I suggest folks read, Rev 2:18,19,20,21,22,23,24,25

These verses speaks of this blending of pagan influence into the church for purposes of world control of leaders. Isthar is a mother figure who influences rulers how to govern. We see this in degrees in the most of RC and some of the EO churches. They seek to be part of the world system of control, and do blend Jezebel's Ba'al worship into the church.

Suggest you read Rev 2:18-25 soon
-
-
-

For more prophecies on the blending of paganism in Revelation 11:4, regarding the Two Witnesses, in the context of Zechariah 4:3, who are (in the context of Zechariah 3 and 4), Joshua and Zerubbabel, who rebuilt the temple and rejected the offer of the Samaritans in Ezra 4. The Samaritans practiced a mixture of Assyrian paganism and Judaism.

The implication here is that the Two Witnesses of Revelation are hated because they stand against the Anti-Christ and False Prophet in their goal to use the rebuilt Temple to glorify themselves and the Beast.

Unless I'm misunderstanding the implication here the two witnesses are used by God to help the jews rebuild the temple and to preach the gospel to the world until their work is done and they are killed inwhich the whole world rejoices and celebrates their deaths.I say only today with the technology we have with computers,cell phones,world wide news 24 hours a day,etc can the whole world see their dead bodies laying in the streets and celebrate their deaths. But also how every eye sees the return of Jesus also Revelation 1:7

[EssentialSacrifice]

BW wrote:
The Immaculate Conception, meaning Mary is free from sin, is nothing more and nothing less than the old storyline of Ishtar and Tammuz - or Astarte and Nebo disguised in christianese.

Sorry, that is the blatant truth. If it offends you or others so be it. I do not offend on purpose but out of love in order to to restore people back to Jesus Christ who do not know the depths of Satan.

Is this real or just messing with thesign ?

[EssentialSacrifice]

SoCal wrote:
There is no biblical support for Mary being sinless. In fact, the implication of Luke 1:47 is the opposite.

Revised Standard Version Catholic Edition (RSVCE)
luke 1 28 And he came to her and said, “Hail, full of grace,[a] the Lord is with you!”

Webster's New World College Dictionary provides this theological definition of grace: "The unmerited love and favor of God toward human beings; divine influence acting in a person to make the person pure, morally strong; the condition of a person brought to God's favor through this influence; a special virtue, gift, or help given to a person by God."

[Mallz]

BW wrote:
The Immaculate Conception, meaning Mary is free from sin, is nothing more and nothing less than the old storyline of Ishtar and Tammuz - or Astarte and Nebo disguised in christianese.

Sorry, that is the blatant truth. If it offends you or others so be it. I do not offend on purpose but out of love in order to to restore people back to Jesus Christ who do not know the depths of Satan.

Is this real or just messing with thesign ?

He's being factual.

[SoCalExile]

SoCal wrote:
There is no biblical support for Mary being sinless. In fact, the implication of Luke 1:47 is the opposite.

Revised Standard Version Catholic Edition (RSVCE)
luke 1 28 And he came to her and said, “Hail, full of grace,[a] the Lord is with you!”

Webster's New World College Dictionary provides this theological definition of grace: "The unmerited love and favor of God toward human beings; divine influence acting in a person to make the person pure, morally strong; the condition of a person brought to God's favor through this influence; a special virtue, gift, or help given to a person by God."

Yeah she didn't deserve to be the mother of Christ, it was a gift: i.e grace. BTW it doesn't help your case to use a English dictionary to define "grace" when the original text is written in ancient Greek. No language is a 1-for-1 translation; thus you have to use a Greek dictionary to define Greek terms.

"χαριτόω charitóō, khar-ee-to'-o; from G5485; to grace, i.e. indue with special honor:—make accepted, be highly favoured."

Note the same Greek wordis used twice in Ephesians 1:6, to describe all believers:
"To the praise of the glory of his grace, wherein he hath made (χαριτόω) us accepted (χαριτόω) in the beloved."

So are we Immaculately Conceived also? Not in the Catholic sense. Born-again Christians can still sin; see Romans 7:19 and 1 John 1:8.

There is no verse in the Bible that proves Mary was sinless or had anything other than a normal human birth.

[EssentialSacrifice]

Yeah she didn't deserve to be the mother of Christ, it was a gift: i.e grace.

so what is being said here, God chose Mary as the Mother of God, for his good reasons, but didn't find her deservng ?
really, in any way ? how is it you know so well the mind and thoughts of God. I reason she was favored by His decision, how do reason she was not deserving when you already know she is "full of grace".

"χαριτόω charitóō, khar-ee-to'-o; from G5485; to grace, i.e. indue with special honor:—make accepted, be highly favoured."

Note the same Greek wordis used twice in Ephesians 1:6, to describe all believers:
"To the praise of the glory of his grace, wherein he hath made (χαριτόω) us accepted (χαριτόω) in the beloved."

Perfect passive participle of charitoo and means endowed with grace (charis), enriched with grace as in Ephesians 1:6

However, Luke 1:28 uses a special conjugated form of "charitoo." It uses "kecharitomene," while Ephesians 1:6 uses "echaritosen," which is a different form of the verb "charitoo." Echaritosen means "he graced" (or bestowed grace). Echaritosen signifies a momentary action, an action brought to pass (Blass and DeBrunner, Greek Grammar of the New Testament, p. 166). Whereas, Kecharitomene, the perfect passive participle, shows a completeness with a permanent result. Kecharitomene denotescontinuance of a completed action (H. W. Smyth, Greek Grammar [Harvard Univ Press, 1968], p. 108-109,

http://www.philvaz.com/apologetics/a116.htm

and there in lies the difference So Cal … The Greek writer saw Mary as grace filled before during and after her angelic encounter. Grace filled sin free. The angel called her “hail full of grace” he gave her a new name, he called her by what is most prominent in her, that which is most striking, what is most abundant and abundantly clear … she is grace filled beyond our capacity to comprehend.

It is this: Mary, too, required a Savior. Like all other descendants of Adam, by her nature she was subject to the necessity of contracting original sin. But by a special intervention of God, undertaken at the instant she was conceived, she was preserved from the stain of original sin and its consequences. She was therefore redeemed by the grace of Christ, but in a special way, by anticipation. The doctrine of the Immaculate Conception thus does not contradict Luke 1:47.

Why do you and others struggle so mightily at the sinlessness of the Mother of God. How else would you have it ? Would you want your mother to be any other ? How else could it possibly be ? As one example of many, how does the sinless Son of God Hebrews 4:15 become the righteous man from a sinful woman ? Flesh of my flesh, bone of my bone blood of my blood, right ? Genesis 2:23-25 right down to the DNA, Mary is where Jesus gets His corporal body from . That's the human part of the ManGod that cannot be denied. A human being. His flesh and bone from Mary's flesh and bone would be contaminated with/by her original sin ( she would pass it on to her child, Jesus just as our mother's did us) had she had even the slightest amount. Are you saying Christ wasn't sinless ? Of course not, but if he is not it's because she was not or if she were, He, His human side would be in sin, which the Father would never abide…
Can a soul enslaved by sin of any kind be full of the Divine Grace of God? Luke 1:28 The answer should be obvious, it CAN’T, God HATES ALL SIN.
… Rom. 1: 18 , Job 34:10 , Ex. 20: 5 , Wisdom14:9

[RickD]

Just curious, where in scripture is the term, "Mother of God" used to describe Mary?