Trinitarians believe that Jesus is the Word of God incarnate.
There is an account in the Hebrew Scriptures of a man put to death for gathering firewood on the Sabbath. The following is the account:
Numbers 15:3236
32. When the children of Israel were in the desert, they found a man gathering wood on the Sabbath day.
33. Those who found him gathering wood presented him before Moses and Aaron and before the entire congregation.
34. They put him under guard, since it was not specified what was to be done to him.
35. The Lord said to Moses, The man shall be put to death; the entire congregation shall pelt him with stones outside the camp.
36. So the entire congregation took him outside the camp, and they pelted him to death with stones, as the Lord had commanded Moses.
Jesus said the following about working on the Sabbath:
But when the Pharisees asked why Jesus and His disciples did on the Sabbath "that which is unlawful," Jesus replied: "The Sabbath was made for man, and not man for the Sabbath." (Mark 2:24)
However, if Jesus is the Word of God incarnate does that mean that Jesus ordered the death of the man in Numbers 15:32-36?
This question has come up because:
A Muslim made the statement that a Muslim who leaves Islam should be put to death for apostasy. I asked him to show me where Jesus ordered the death of anyone for apostasy. Although the man gathering firewood was not put to death for apostasy, this is how the Muslim answered me.
His comment was: "You believe that Jesus is God. So the law of Moses came from Jesus and therefore Jesus ordered the execution."
I can't seem to think this one through and would appreciate any thoughts from the Christians on G&S.
Thank you.

