Did Jesus kill a man for gathering firewood on the Sabbath?

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Did Jesus kill a man for gathering firewood on the Sabbath?

Postby Christian2 » Fri Oct 19, 2007 4:40 am

Trinitarians believe that Jesus is the Word of God incarnate.

There is an account in the Hebrew Scriptures of a man put to death for gathering firewood on the Sabbath. The following is the account:

Numbers 15:3236

32. When the children of Israel were in the desert, they found a man gathering wood on the Sabbath day.
33. Those who found him gathering wood presented him before Moses and Aaron and before the entire congregation.
34. They put him under guard, since it was not specified what was to be done to him.
35. The Lord said to Moses, The man shall be put to death; the entire congregation shall pelt him with stones outside the camp.
36. So the entire congregation took him outside the camp, and they pelted him to death with stones, as the Lord had commanded Moses.

Jesus said the following about working on the Sabbath:

But when the Pharisees asked why Jesus and His disciples did on the Sabbath "that which is unlawful," Jesus replied: "The Sabbath was made for man, and not man for the Sabbath." (Mark 2:24)

However, if Jesus is the Word of God incarnate does that mean that Jesus ordered the death of the man in Numbers 15:32-36?

This question has come up because:

A Muslim made the statement that a Muslim who leaves Islam should be put to death for apostasy. I asked him to show me where Jesus ordered the death of anyone for apostasy. Although the man gathering firewood was not put to death for apostasy, this is how the Muslim answered me.

His comment was: "You believe that Jesus is God. So the law of Moses came from Jesus and therefore Jesus ordered the execution."

I can't seem to think this one through and would appreciate any thoughts from the Christians on G&S.

Thank you.
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Re: Did Jesus kill a man for gathering firewood on the Sabbath?

Postby Harry OK » Fri Oct 19, 2007 6:44 am

Christian2 wrote:Trinitarians believe that Jesus is the Word of God incarnate.

There is an account in the Hebrew Scriptures of a man put to death for gathering firewood on the Sabbath. The following is the account:

Numbers 15:3236

32. When the children of Israel were in the desert, they found a man gathering wood on the Sabbath day.
33. Those who found him gathering wood presented him before Moses and Aaron and before the entire congregation.
34. They put him under guard, since it was not specified what was to be done to him.
35. The Lord said to Moses, The man shall be put to death; the entire congregation shall pelt him with stones outside the camp.
36. So the entire congregation took him outside the camp, and they pelted him to death with stones, as the Lord had commanded Moses.

Jesus said the following about working on the Sabbath:

But when the Pharisees asked why Jesus and His disciples did on the Sabbath "that which is unlawful," Jesus replied: "The Sabbath was made for man, and not man for the Sabbath." (Mark 2:24)

However, if Jesus is the Word of God incarnate does that mean that Jesus ordered the death of the man in Numbers 15:32-36?

This question has come up because:

A Muslim made the statement that a Muslim who leaves Islam should be put to death for apostasy. I asked him to show me where Jesus ordered the death of anyone for apostasy. Although the man gathering firewood was not put to death for apostasy, this is how the Muslim answered me.

His comment was: "You believe that Jesus is God. So the law of Moses came from Jesus and therefore Jesus ordered the execution."

I can't seem to think this one through and would appreciate any thoughts from the Christians on G&S.

Thank you.


Jesus didn't come to judge. He came to save. :lol:
If you're born once, you die twice; but if you're born twice, you die once.
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Re: Did Jesus kill a man for gathering firewood on the Sabbath?

Postby Christian2 » Fri Oct 19, 2007 8:02 am

Harry OK wrote:
Christian2 wrote:Trinitarians believe that Jesus is the Word of God incarnate.

There is an account in the Hebrew Scriptures of a man put to death for gathering firewood on the Sabbath. The following is the account:

Numbers 15:3236

32. When the children of Israel were in the desert, they found a man gathering wood on the Sabbath day.
33. Those who found him gathering wood presented him before Moses and Aaron and before the entire congregation.
34. They put him under guard, since it was not specified what was to be done to him.
35. The Lord said to Moses, The man shall be put to death; the entire congregation shall pelt him with stones outside the camp.
36. So the entire congregation took him outside the camp, and they pelted him to death with stones, as the Lord had commanded Moses.

Jesus said the following about working on the Sabbath:

But when the Pharisees asked why Jesus and His disciples did on the Sabbath "that which is unlawful," Jesus replied: "The Sabbath was made for man, and not man for the Sabbath." (Mark 2:24)

However, if Jesus is the Word of God incarnate does that mean that Jesus ordered the death of the man in Numbers 15:32-36?

This question has come up because:

A Muslim made the statement that a Muslim who leaves Islam should be put to death for apostasy. I asked him to show me where Jesus ordered the death of anyone for apostasy. Although the man gathering firewood was not put to death for apostasy, this is how the Muslim answered me.

His comment was: "You believe that Jesus is God. So the law of Moses came from Jesus and therefore Jesus ordered the execution."

I can't seem to think this one through and would appreciate any thoughts from the Christians on G&S.

Thank you.


Jesus didn't come to judge. He came to save. :lol:


Yes, I realize that but you still have not addressed my question.

My thought is that we cannot blame Jesus for God's actions in the Hebrew Scriptures. After all, the human Jesus was born 2,000 years ago.

It is God's Word that incarnated Jesus and that happened at Jesus' conception.

I also think that Jesus brought a better way as the incarnate Word as noted in Mark 2:24.

But, with those statements I just might have turned myself into a heretic. LOL
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Re: Did Jesus kill a man for gathering firewood on the Sabbath?

Postby FFC » Fri Oct 19, 2007 8:33 am

Christian2,
My flip answer to your friend would be even if Jesus did order the guy gathering firewood to be executed, "so what? God, being the author of the law, can do whatever He wants to do...on the same token, Jesus being God in the flesh can too". But just to be clear, Jesus never broke the laws of God...He only exposed the man made laws that men tried to pawn off as Gods, ie the Scribes and pharisees.

I think the underlying question, in my mind anyway, is why the NT person of the Godhead seems to be softer on sin than the OT person of the Godhead...and is this not a contradiction of some sort. To which I would offer, because Jesus came to usher in the New covenant. A covenant of Grace and not the works of the law. A covenant that is based on what God does for us to give us favor, and not what we do to get God's favor.

What do you think?
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Re: Did Jesus kill a man for gathering firewood on the Sabbath?

Postby Jac3510 » Fri Oct 19, 2007 9:56 am

My short answer is that Jesus never broke the Sabbath, nor did He ever advocate breaking the Sabbath. Doing good, such as healing, is not restricted by Levitical law. That it was restricted by Pharisaical law means absolutely nothing, because Jesus was not the author of that. He was the author of the OT law, though, which was the law He perfectly kept.

The man in numbers broke the law. He, then, suffered the punishment laid out for lawbreakers. Jesus never broke the law, and yet He suffered the punishment laid out for lawbreakers. And that is where you go into substitutionary atonement.
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Re: Did Jesus kill a man for gathering firewood on the Sabbath?

Postby Christian2 » Fri Oct 19, 2007 10:45 am

Jac3510 wrote:My short answer is that Jesus never broke the Sabbath, nor did He ever advocate breaking the Sabbath. Doing good, such as healing, is not restricted by Levitical law. That it was restricted by Pharisaical law means absolutely nothing, because Jesus was not the author of that. He was the author of the OT law, though, which was the law He perfectly kept.

The man in numbers broke the law. He, then, suffered the punishment laid out for lawbreakers. Jesus never broke the law, and yet He suffered the punishment laid out for lawbreakers. And that is where you go into substitutionary atonement.


Thanks Jac,

I agree that Jesus did not break the Sabbath even though the religious leaders in His day accused Him of it.

I have come to the conclusion that, yes, the Word who became flesh in Jesus, was present when the man who broke the Sabbath in the Hebrew Scriptures was executed and approved it.

I don't know why but this realization is sobbering for me. A friend of mine told me to "deal with it." LOL
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